Army Aviation Captain's Career Course (AVC3) Entrance Practice Exam

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• Which statement about debriefs best describes their purpose?
• Which tactical mission task uses direct fires, supported by indirect fires, to engage an enemy without closing with the enemy to destroy, suppress, fix, or deceive them?
• Which form of defense includes perimeter defense, defense of a linear obstacle, and reverse slope defense?
• Aviation Mishap Prevention Program (AMPP) aims at?
• What is a general guideline for crew rest to reduce fatigue?
• What term describes disengaging from an enemy force and moving in a direction away from the enemy?
• The doctrine describes an attack by fire or other destructive means from concealed positions against a moving or temporarily halted enemy as which action?
• Which of the following is a pillar of Crew Resource Management?
• Which forecast product provides short-term forecast weather updates for a location?
• Which vehicle is a Soviet/Russian main battle tank?
• A tactical mission task in which a second committed force follows a force conducting an offensive task and is prepared to continue if the lead force is fixed, attrited, or unable to continue.
• Which step corresponds to 'Orders production, dissemination, and transition' in Troop Leading Procedures?
• Which set of attributes includes leadership, information, command and control, movement and maneuver, intelligence, fires, sustainment, and protection?
• Which two rotorcraft systems are typically verified in a preflight check?
• Which of the following statements correctly lists IPB steps in their natural order?
• Which helicopter is primarily used for troop transport and cargo operations?
• A type of security operation done to protect the main body by fighting to gain time while preventing enemy ground observation of and direct fire against the main body.
• The OODA loop stands for which sequence?
• Which of the following factors influence rotorcraft takeoff distance?
• How do you differentiate risk acceptance from risk mitigation in ORM?
• Which tactical mission task involves breaking through a defense or obstacle?
• Which term describes the Aviation Core Competencies?
• Which tactical mission task requires the commander to stop, hold, or surround enemy forces or to center their activity on a given front and prevent them from withdrawing any part of their forces for use elsewhere?
• The general area through which the bulk of a unit's combat power must move.
• Which term best describes moving away from enemy contact?
• Define reconnaissance by fire and when it might be used.
• Which strategy helps mitigate brownout in rotorcraft operations?
• What is the purpose of instrument scanning during flight, particularly when using NVGs?
• What is a load manifest and why is it required?
• Which acronym stands for an information requirement about the status of friendly forces and supporting capabilities?
• Which activity entails planning, directing, coordinating, and controlling forces to achieve a mission?
• Which term describes the distance rotorcraft can travel on a given fuel load?
• Which boundary would you expect to see in practice to prevent fires from crossing between adjacent units?
• Which tank is a later model of the Russian main battle tank family?
• Which of the following is a key consideration when operating at night with NVGs?
• Which tactical mission task delays enemy movement by denying access or passage through an obstacle, requiring integration of fire and obstacle effects?
• BRDM-2 is primarily used as what?
• Which tactical mission task aims to separate a force from its sources of support to reduce its effectiveness and increase its vulnerability to defeat?
• What does MUM-T stand for?
• A tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo.
• In Attack by Fire, which fires arrangement is described?
• Which term describes the movement of troops and equipment by combat and tactical vehicles?
• A specific boundary established between converging, friendly surface forces that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing is called what?
• Which item is a radar system known as Giraffe?
• Which tactical mission task uses direct fires, supported by indirect fires, to engage an enemy force without closing with the enemy to destroy, suppress, fix, or deceive that enemy?
• Which tactical mission task requires the commander to remove all enemy forces and eliminate organized resistance within an assigned area?
• Which option best describes residual risk acceptance in ORM?
• Which term denotes the plural form describing the overall warfighting capabilities and tasks used by commanders?
• Which term describes the general area through which the bulk of a unit's combat power must move via aircraft?
• Which term describes distinct tactical combinations of fire and movement that differ primarily in the relationship between the maneuvering force and the enemy?
• Which tactical mission task involves maneuvering around an obstacle to maintain momentum of the operation while deliberately avoiding combat?
• Which IPB step evaluates the threat?
• In ORM, risk controls are used to do what?
• Which item on the list is a NATO-listed main battle tank from the United States?
• Which tactical mission task involves moving a force to a position to control an area, with movement and occupation occurring without enemy opposition?
• Which tactical mission task involves following a lead force and being prepared to continue if the lead cannot?
• Which statement about the DECIDE model is accurate?
• Distinguish between endurance and range.
• In the Troop Leading Procedures, what is Step 1?
• Which term refers to a group of tasks and systems united by a common purpose that commanders use to accomplish missions and training objectives?
• Which term is defined as the actions taken to counter enemy reconnaissance and surveillance as part of security operations?
• Which of the following is a core principle of Cockpit Resource Management?
• What is the primary purpose of a restrictive fire line?
• Which tactical mission task is defined as the regulation of forces and warfighting functions to accomplish the mission in accordance with the commander's intent?
• What does METT-TC stand for in mission planning?
• Which attack method entails attacking with all three companies simultaneously to exert maximum power?
• Which system is a self-propelled howitzer?
• An attack by fire or other destructive means from concealed positions on a moving or temporarily halted enemy is described as which action?
• In Attack by Fire, the commander uses which combination of fires?
• Environmental effects on operations typically consider which factors?
• How do IFR and VFR flight operations differ in terms of weather minimums?
• Which navigation method uses visual landmarks to determine position?
• Which term describes the information requirement about the status of friendly forces and supporting capabilities?
• Which unmanned aircraft system is described as being part of the Gray Eagle company in the CAB?
• A load manifest must include payload, weight, and which other critical parameter?
• CCIR stands for which of the following?
• A tactical mission task where a commander prevents the enemy from moving any part of that force from a specific location for a specific period. Fix is also an obstacle effect that slows an attacker's movement within a specified area, normally an engagement area.
• Which tactical mission task is described as an obstacle effect used to stop an attacker along an avenue of approach or to prevent passing through an engagement area?
• Which term denotes a boundary that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing between converging friendly forces?
• A tactical mission task that involves preventing a unit, facility, or geographical location from being damaged or destroyed as a result of enemy action is called what?
• BMP-2 is what type of armored vehicle?
• Which item on the list is a radar system used for air surveillance and weapon guidance?
• SMEAC in mission execution planning stands for what?
• What is the purpose of an after-action review (AAR)?
• Which tactical mission task is defined as stopping, holding, or surrounding enemy forces and preventing withdrawal?
• Which term describes an area where fires are allowed freely between units, representing the opposite of an RFL?
• Which aircraft is a heavy-lift helicopter?
• What is the purpose of standardized radio procedures?
• Which tactical mission task denies the enemy access to an area or prevents the enemy's advance in a direction or along an avenue of approach?
• What is the general area through which the bulk of a unit's combat power must move?
• Which acronym is defined as a commander's critical information requirement identified as critical to facilitating timely decision making?
• What does the acronym RFL stand for in relation to fire control?
• In aviation weather planning, which of the following is NOT a typical aviation weather product?
• Which tactical mission task is described as both the destruction of an encircled or bypassed enemy force and a mobility task to create and mark lanes through, over, or around an obstacle?
• A tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission is called what?
• In the ORM process, which option correctly lists the four steps in their proper order?
• What term describes protection from the effects of fires and is conducted independent of the main body to protect them by fighting to gain time?
• What is the general priority when an engine fails in flight?
• Which item directly corresponds to evaluating hazards and risk in rotorcraft flight planning?
• Which form of maneuver includes envelopment, frontal assault, infiltration, penetration, and turning movement?
• Which statement best describes autorotation?
• In the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield, which step involves defining the operating environment?
• Which tactical mission task covers all measures taken by a commander to counter enemy reconnaissance and surveillance efforts?
• Which term describes the boundary used to prevent crossing of fires between converging friendly forces?
• A type of security operation that primarily provides early warning to the protected force.
• BTR-70 identification corresponds to which category?
• Which OAKOC element addresses cover and concealment?
• What is the correct order of the levels of warfare from highest to lowest?
• Time available is a METT-TC element that addresses?
• Which set of tasks includes ensure continuous reconnaissance, orient on reconnaissance objectives, and reporting information rapidly and accurately?
• Which element is not typically included in a standard radio position report?
• Which factor is part of the Military Aspects of Terrain (as listed)?
• Which rotorcraft is a dedicated attack helicopter?
• Which aircraft is an attack helicopter?
• A tactical mission task where a unit breaks contact with the enemy to allow for another mission or to avoid decisive engagement.
• Which tactical mission task involves the destruction of an encircled or bypassed enemy force?
• Which acronym denotes an intelligence requirement that the commander and staff need to understand the threat and other aspects of the operational environment?
• Which statement differentiates pilotage from dead reckoning navigation?
• In SMEAC, which component covers administration and logistics?
• An attack method that may be employed after phased attacks due to FARP limitations is called what?
• Which tactical mission task requires synchronized combined arms activity under the maneuver command to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• Which term includes command and control, movement and maneuver, intelligence, fires, sustainment, and protection?
• Which level involves the employment and arrangement of forces in relation to each other for effective operations?
• Which term denotes the general area through which the bulk of a unit's combat power must move by air support?
• What does FARP stand for?
• Bradley is which type of military vehicle?
• What is the primary purpose of implementing risk controls in ORM?
• Mi-24 is best described as which of the following?
• In the MDMP, which step comes after COA development?
• Which tactical mission task involves moving into a position to engage the enemy in direct fire to support another maneuvering force?
• Which concept describes the synchronized use of manned and unmanned aircraft to perform missions?
• In rotorcraft flight planning, which element is essential to ensure safe operation?
• CCIR stands for which of the following?
• In the Aviation Mishap Prevention Program (AMPP), what are the core steps used to prevent mishaps?
• A tactical mission task in which a committed force follows and supports a lead force conducting an offensive task.
• Which IPB step describes environmental effects on operations?
• Which system among the list is a field radar used for air defense and surveillance?
• Brownout is caused by rotor wash kicking up dust and sand, which reduces visibility. What is the recommended mitigation?
• An attack method where operations are conducted in phases, typically for less than 24 hours is called what?
• Which is NOT a form of maneuver?
• What does PMCS stand for, and why is it important?
• Why is it important to conduct a thorough debrief and lessons learned after a mission?
• Which helicopter is a Russian Kamov design attack helicopter?
• In the Troop Leading Procedures, which step directly follows 'Make tentative plan'?
• What immediate actions should you take if a hydraulic system failure occurs in a rotorcraft?
• A tactical mission task in which a force moves a friendly force into an area so that it can control that area, with movement and occupation occurring without enemy opposition, is called what?
• Which vehicle is a Soviet-era infantry fighting vehicle?
• What term describes the movement of friendly assault forces by rotor-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or seize key terrain?
• Which OAKOC component addresses concealment?
• Which category includes tasks such as providing early warning, reaction time and maneuver space, orienting on the force, and maintaining enemy contact?
• Why is weight and balance critical for helicopter flight?
• Which level of war is primarily concerned with linking tactical actions to strategic objectives through the design and planning of campaigns?
• Which tactical mission task denies the enemy access to an area or prevents their advance in a direction?
• ZSU-23-4 is best described as what type of weapon system?
• How many nautical miles are in one minute of latitude?
• How does density altitude affect rotorcraft performance?
• MI-24 is a what kind of aircraft?
• Which tactical mission task is designed to prevent a unit, facility, or geographical location from being damaged or destroyed due to enemy action?
• ISR stands for?
• Which tactical mission task involves forcing an enemy force from one avenue of approach or mobility corridor to another?
• Which of the following is a United States main battle tank?
• Which employment method ensures at least one company remains in the battle at all times?
• What are the three levels of warfare?
• Which tactical mission task requires synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• Why is continuous monitoring and feedback essential during a mission?
• Which term refers to movements of troops mainly by foot, with limited vehicle support, conducted under specific conditions?
• Which is a light observation helicopter?
• Which tactical mission task is described as destroying an enemy system so badly that it cannot perform any function or be restored to usable condition without being rebuilt?
• Which tactical mission task involves following and supporting a lead force during an offensive operation?
• What is another common name for the boundary that prohibits fires crossing between converging forces, abbreviated RFL?
• In METT-TC, which element refers to hostile force capabilities and intent?
• In the ORM process, which step comes after identifying hazards?
• Which official sources provide aviation weather information for planning?
• What is the difference between METAR and TAF?
• What elements should you include when reporting your position, altitude, and intent over the radio?
• In the Military Decision Making Process, which term completes the listed five elements: Situation, Mission, Execution, Sustainment, and ____?
• Which term is the plural form used to describe the collective set of Warfighting capabilities and tasks used by commanders?
• During a high-workload situation, which action aligns with Cockpit Resource Management principles?
• Which statement best describes the primary function of mutual support in Cockpit Resource Management?
• In ORM, risk severity is defined as the magnitude of what?
• A tactical mission task in which the commander ensures that a terrain feature controlled by a friendly force remains free of enemy occupation or use is called what?
• Which tactical mission task restricts enemy movement to a narrow zone by exploiting terrain along with the use of obstacles, fires, or friendly maneuver?
• What is the DECIDE model used for?
• Which organization is described as consisting of a headquarters, ACS, AB, AHB, GSAB and a Gray Eagle company equipped with 12 MQ-1C unmanned aircraft?
• What is the purpose of standard operating procedures (SOPs) in aviation operations?
• Orient on reconnaissance objectives
• Which tactical mission task renders a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• In ORM, which two factors determine the risk level?
• FFIR stands for which of the following?
• Which tactical mission task describes taking possession of a designated area using overwhelming force?
• Which statement accurately defines AGL and AMSL and their typical uses?
• The general area through which the bulk of a unit's combat power must move via aircraft.
• Which tactical mission task requires the commander to remove all enemy forces and eliminate organized resistance within an assigned area?
• In a continuous attack, how is additional firepower introduced?
• How does Crew Resource Management support emergency responses?
• In Army aviation, who typically has final authority for safe flight during a mission?
• Name a common human factor affecting aviation safety and a mitigation.
• A tactical mission task where a commander removes Soldiers or units from areas under enemy control by stealth, deception, surprise, or clandestine means.
• Per ADP 3-90, which term is no longer used as a defined Army term?
• What is the difference between true north and magnetic north, and how does magnetic variation affect navigation?
• Which tactical mission task is described as rendering an enemy force combat-ineffective until it can be reconstituted?
• In military terms, which tactical mission task aims to prevent enemy use of an area or route by interrupting their access?
• Which system is a self-propelled anti-aircraft gun?
• What tactical mission task is defined as preventing, disrupting, or delaying the enemy's use of an area or route?
• Which term covers operations involving the use of rotary-wing assets for missions other than air assaults?
• Which item would you check during PMCS before flight?
• A tactical mission task that involves taking possession of a designated area using overwhelming force is called what?
• Which security operation is performed to protect the main body by fighting to gain time while preventing enemy ground observation of and direct fire against the main body?
• Which IPB step determines threat COAs?
• What term refers to protection from the effects of fires and is also used to describe a security operation conducted independent of the main body to protect them by fighting to gain time?
• Name a weather hazard that significantly affects rotorcraft during low-level flight.
• A tactical mission task in which a maneuver force moves to a position where it can engage the enemy by direct fire in support of another maneuvering force is called what?
• In the MDMP, which step comes after COA development?
• Which statement best describes the focus of Crew Resource Management?
• Which level links tactical employment to strategic objectives and focuses on design and planning of operations?
• Which item should be included in fuel planning reserves?
• Disruption, flexibility, maneuver, mass and concentration, operations in depth, preparation, and security are characteristics of which offensive concept?
• What tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
• Which mission task involves engaging the enemy without closing, with indirect fires providing support?
• Which tactical mission task is described as an obstacle effect that slows an attacker's movement within an engagement area?
• What term describes the movement of troops from one place to another by any available means?
• What action should you take if your fuel state indicator shows below reserve?
• Which planning sequence is described by Ground tactical plan, Landing plan, Air movement plan, Loading plan, and Staging plan?
• Which defense form focuses on defending along a linear obstacle or positioning to cover terrain?
• What is residual risk in ORM?
• What tactical task involves trading space for time by slowing the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage without becoming decisively engaged?
• Which of the following is one of the five elements of the Military Decision Making Process as described?
• Which helicopter is associated with the Kiowa Warrior lineage?
• What is the purpose of NATOPS-style standards in Army aviation?
• What is a primary reason for maintaining lighting discipline during night operations with NVGs?
• Why is cross-checking altitude during climbs and descents important?
• How many MQ-1C unmanned aircraft are in the Gray Eagle company of the CAB?
• Name an Army Regulation related to aviation flight operations.
• Which organization or program is primarily responsible for standardizing procedures and improving training quality across Army aviation crews?
• Which attack employment method involves sequential phases from different battle positions?
• Which term encompasses providing accurate and timely information collection, reaction time, maneuver space, and enabling command and control over extended ranges?
• Which sequence represents the DECIDE model steps in correct order?